Let's assume that an Atheist believes that God may exist with a probability of 0.000001,
So His hereafter compared to his life is 1 : 0.000001 or the Ratio will be 1/0.000001= 1,000,000
His life worth 1 million times his here after
But his life is not constant, it is getting shorter by time
Limit of 0.000001/Y as Y-->0 is Infinity
His hereafter will worth infinite times his life
QED :-)
What do you think?
58 comments
"What do you think?"
You are an idiot!
I'm drunk, but I'm also a mathematician. With better phrasing, this could be a nice idea. A wrong one, but a nice one.
Let's assume that an Atheist believes that God may exist with a probability of 0.000001
You have no fucking clue what an atheist is, do you?
What do you think?
Well, I think that you are a fucking idiot!
Thanks for asking, though...
I'm fairly certain that Afadly is trying to paint as a 'proof' the premise that the ratio of the perceived value of life to the perceived value of the hereafter is equal to the ratio of the perceived amount of life left to the perceived probability that the hereafter exists. Obviously it is not a 'proof' in any mathematical sense.
That said, the premise itself is clearly a gross oversimplification of all the abstractions involved to arbitrary real numbers, not based on any evidence whatsoever, and so I succinctly summarise it as follows:
FAIL.
I think it's amazing someone of your obvious limitations can type actual English words. Patently, you have no idea how to string them together into a reasonable thought, but I DO recognize them as English words.
Since the "math" involved here is totally meaningless, I will instead focus on being an immature bastard.
It should be represented as a variable ( Y)
I realize what that's supposed to be, but all I see is a lame ASCII buttcrack.
First you're bad at science, now you're bad at math?
Hey its your people that you embarrass, not ours.
So P=probability of God's existence= 1/100000
So, my question is this: What does the probability of God existing have to do with the value of living in the afterlife? Wouldn't this mean that the less probable God is, the more valuable the afterlife is, whereas, if he is a certainty, the "hereafter" would be as valuable as this life? What does the probability of God's existence have to do with how significant the afterlife he provides happens to be?
And your last problem only proves that life of any value becomes much more valuable when Y (presumably the amount of time you have left to live) approaches 0, whereas, once it approaches infinity (such as, in the afterlife), the value of that life reaches 0 instead. (Also, why the hell do you use the probability of God existing as the numerator. It isn't relevant to your results, but it doesn't make any damn sense).
Maybe I merely misinterpret...but, eh...looks like dumbass to me.
Hang on, i ran the same figures and got a divide by zero error, what gives?
oh, "Let's assume", seems to be a common theme with Fundies.
"Let's assume that an Atheist believes that God may exist with a probability of 0.000001,"
At that point we call him an agnostic.
*number salad*
"QED :-)"
QED is not clever, funny, cute, or effective.
Your proof is number salad and it does not make any damn sense.
Well, there is absolutely no chance that any of the gods presented by humans are real, so if there is a god - it hasn't presented itself to humanity yet.
Your fairytale and boogymen aren't logical and of all the mythos available, christianity is as unbelievable as the rest.
He's right, y'know.
The best strategy for Pascal's Wager is not to be a Believer until the instant before you die.
That way, you're not wasting time going to church or paying tithes throughout your life, but you still get eternal paradise afterward.
I have no idea what you just tried to do, but you failed utterly at it.
Also, just assembling various words in english from a Scrabble set and throwing them together (apparently at random) does not form complete og intelligible sentences.
Why would the inverse function represent the heareafter? And when did we go from "probablility of existence of God" to "arbitrary measure of the worth of life"?
Your proof is proof all right, but not of what you intended.
QED.
Sure, it makes perfect sense if you make up the numbers as you go along, don't follow any sort of logic, and pretend that life is as simple as a calculus problem.
image
The limit of 1/x as x goes to 0 doesn't exist. However, 1/x does have one sided limits at the origin.
Calculus fail and an epic mathematical proof fail.
@ HeadacheWhat I think is that I want the same as you are smoking!
I'd like a little of it, too, but not nearly as much as he's had.
Confused?
So were we! You can find all of this, and more, on Fundies Say the Darndest Things!
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